In the interests of making lemonade for those who are familiar
with castle doctrine, and wonder "just how far back, does it go?"...
From
'An Englishman's home is his castle' - the meaning and origin of this phrase :
What was meant by 'castle' was defined in 1763 by the British Prime Minister...
William Pitt, the first Earl of Chatham, also known as Pitt the Elder:
"The poorest man may in his cottage bid defiance to all the forces of the crown.
It may be frail - its roof may shake - the wind may blow through it - the storm
may enter - the rain may enter - but the King of England cannot enter."
But it was noted earlier, in
Semayne's case, where it was
" ...established as common law by the lawyer and politician Sir Edward Coke...in...1628:
'For a man's house is his castle, et domus sua cuique est tutissimum refugium
[and each man's home is his safest refuge].' "
Semayne's case--essentially a claim for property owed Semayne by a
deceased (but located within the home of a third party)-- also noted the
unique sanctity afforded the home under the castle precept with a seemingly
tangential observation---that while a homicide committed in self-defense
was still a felony, a killing in defense of one's home was not.
An interesting paper on the origins of castle doctrine, and it's
inclusion in American colonial and subsequent law, is here:
http://scholarship.law.wm.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1190&context=wmjowl