How this would work is a defendant would be placed on trial for some degree of murder. He/she would raise the 'affirmative defense' of self-defense or other recognized defense. As the trial goes to the jury, the trial court judge must instruct the jury on the law as well as the defense - that's why jury instructions matter...they are how the jury is to apply the law.
Every state is different - you couldn't shoot someone over property in NM.
The “pure” defense of property, i.e., not including a defense against force and violence, is always limited to reasonable force under the circumstances. See, e.g., State v. Waggoner, 1946-NMSC-001, 49 N.M. 399, 165 P.2d 122; Brown v. Martinez, 1961-NMSC-040, 68 N.M. 271, 361 P.2d 152. In Brown, the Court held that resort to the use of a firearm to prevent a mere trespass or an unlawful act not amounting to a felony was unreasonable as a matter of law.
The person may not be placed on trial. A DA may decide to not press charges. A grand jury may no indict. Thus, at that point jury instructions would not take place.
Now a DA may decide to prosecute for a variety of reasons, not all of them legitimate. how many times have we seen over zealous prosecutors go after someone who has legally/legitimately used force? Remember the prosecution of the person who used a too powerful 10mm?
I absolutely agree that all states are different and I do not know of any other state that has such provisions in their use of force statutes. Thus while the cases you cite have applicability in NM they do not in Texas.
If you do have examples of Texas cases I'd truly like to read them.